Does anyone now the difference between the dismissal of a foreclosure case by the judge as opposed to one being dismissed by the lender? If dismissed by the courts and not the lender, how can the lender refile? On what basis?
Thank you….
PS: regarding the above article…I have wondered why the Florida Bar and other bar associations in other states have not done anything before…I undertand that there are sometimes collusions with the judges and attorneys and the lenders…I have myself had some interesting experiences in a situation regarding this …
it appears as if crime pays…but selectively…the crime of the lenders are so blatant…and yet our tax dollars keep bailing them out but they keep trying to regain the homes at botom dollar and resell at top dollar…also, if the signature of the homeowner created the negotiable instrument in the first place, does the homeowner not then become an investor to recap some of that earnings after they sell and resell their notes repeatedly??? Somehow it seems as if this is high class slavery in America…using the signatures of the homeowners for such obscene profits and them using the hoemowners to be slaves to keep paying all that interest rates over a long period of time which when calculated has already paid off the principal, or most of it but the interest superseceds the amount of the loan…do the numbers…thanks for your thoughts on this…hope what I wrote makes some sort of sense…?