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	<title>
	Comments on: Mortgage Cases to Test US Use of Once-Obscure Fraud Statute	</title>
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	<link>https://4closurefraud.org/2013/01/18/mortgage-cases-to-test-us-use-of-once-obscure-fraud-statute/</link>
	<description>- Fighting Foreclosure Fraud BY SHARING THE KNOWLEDGE</description>
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		<title>
		By: bobbi swann		</title>
		<link>https://4closurefraud.org/2013/01/18/mortgage-cases-to-test-us-use-of-once-obscure-fraud-statute/#comment-407007</link>

		<dc:creator><![CDATA[bobbi swann]]></dc:creator>
		<pubDate>Fri, 18 Jan 2013 13:53:15 +0000</pubDate>
		<guid isPermaLink="false">https://4closurefraud.org/?p=56869#comment-407007</guid>

					<description><![CDATA[I have a question then after reading this article.  Both banks in their motion to dismiss state that Fannie/Freddie is NOT a financial institution.  Then tell me how a mortgage would have any credibility or worth if the banks sold the mortgages to Fannie/Freddie and then in turn can file foreclosure?  Would not the contract of the mortgage between the bank and borrower then become null and void once it was sold to Fannie/Freddie being that they are not financial institutions.  Would that not violate the clause of the mortgage?  Do they not reference in their docs that the instruments are &quot;Fannie/Freddie&quot; documents?]]></description>
			<content:encoded><![CDATA[<p>I have a question then after reading this article.  Both banks in their motion to dismiss state that Fannie/Freddie is NOT a financial institution.  Then tell me how a mortgage would have any credibility or worth if the banks sold the mortgages to Fannie/Freddie and then in turn can file foreclosure?  Would not the contract of the mortgage between the bank and borrower then become null and void once it was sold to Fannie/Freddie being that they are not financial institutions.  Would that not violate the clause of the mortgage?  Do they not reference in their docs that the instruments are &#8220;Fannie/Freddie&#8221; documents?</p>
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